Writes Bonnie Erbe: "All judges, whether liberal, conservative, or moderate, bring their chosen reasoning into arriving at judicial decisions. Neither side is immune from blurring personal political proclivities with their rulings as judges." Is she right? Does political persuasion have anything to do with objectivity? Are all judges just as objective? If not, what kind of judge is Sotomayor? Post your thoughts.
Previously: A Second Stimulus?
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Reader Comments Read all comments (4)
auradawnveirs of CA 12:33AM July 16, 2009
Dorfy of SC 11:29AM July 15, 2009
Michael Shaver of NJ 9:48AM July 15, 2009